1. You didn't answer the first question. If spiritually perfect then why aren't we spiritually perfect? I never said anything about physicality.
2. So he gave us free will to disobey him? Why would he do that? His first crack at humanity wasn't perfect? If he is all knowing then why wouldn't his first crack be perfect? His second crack wasn't perfect either. He flooded the earth and killed or should I say cleansed the earth and we are still born in sin right?
3. What do you mean things were different then? Gods morality shouldn't change so why would he allow slavery back then?
4. What evidence do you have?
Slavery was not different in its essence. You were someone's property.
However, you may purchase male or female slaves from among the foreigners who live among you. You may also purchase the children of such resident foreigners, including those who have been born in your land. You may treat them as your property, passing them on to your children as a permanent inheritance. You may treat your slaves like this, but the people of Israel, your relatives, must never be treated this way. (Leviticus 25:44-46 NLT)
Here is God saying it's ok to beat your slave as long as they don't die
When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB)
If we are all born equal under god then why can I be someone's property?
I don't want to believe what? That Jews were slaves in Egypt? What proof do you have?
So god if god is the creator of all things, is he not the creator of evil and sin?
The Holy Spirit is not enough proof to convince me